No? Then what about this post below, my post #100? And at least one other as well but let's just leave it at this one.Originally Posted by Reffo
Originally Posted by Reffo, post #100Thank you curlyg, your statement in bold says it all. That's what I have been saying all along. I quoted legal experts who say exactly that. The emphasis is on BOTH Jews and Arabs. Not just Arabs. All should be equal before the law but according to your side of the argument, somehow the Arabs seem to be given more rights than the Jews.Originally Posted by Reffo
Implausible because Israel will not choose to ethnically cleanse the West Bank, like the Arabs did in 1948? You are probably right. Implausible because the Arab countries will not confer citizenship on the Palestinian Arab refugees (except Jordan who already DID to many of them), again you are probably right. Implausible because a sitution will not arise in which Jordan will occupy the crown lands of the West Bank? Again, you are probably right.Originally Posted by curlyg
Nevertheless, it is not uncommon when discussing points of the law, to bring up relevant scenarios in order to decide whether a ruling would make sense or not. Especially if those scenarios COULD conceivably become reality even if implausible. In the case of the Jews, the Arabs DID make my scenario a reality. I am just holding up a mirror and asking you what if the same reality would occur the other way around? Not unreasonable, at least in my opinion ...