Various groups slaughtered the Jews like cattle in that part of the region. Some escaped whilst others managed to remain there.Originally posted by droberts1958
From what I have read about the region's history the non Jews were in a substantial majority right up untill the time that the UN declared the state of Israel in existance and many Arabs for various reasons fled. This was the case for around 2,000 years and the strongest claim during this period was that the Jewish population had a "continuous presence".
Can someone explain to me how a "continuous presence" gives you a right to the land when you have been a minority for most of a couple of thousand years ?
Is there another justification for Israel's historical claims to present day Israel, Jerusalem or the West Bank/Gaza.
I am interested to learn what the Jewish perspective on this is.
So if I understand your question correctly your argument is if all the Jews had been murdered then they would have no claim to the land.
But that wasn't the case was it?
Therefore the ones that remained were the keepers of the land. At what point in history would you make a division of land?
I.e.: 1 Jew =1acre
I don't see why so many Jews versus so many Arabs should be an issue in any event because I'm certain that you would agree that there isn't and equal division of wealth or land in any society.
The Torah, the rest of the Hebrew Bible, and the New Testament are excellent books in my opinion to determine who lived where and when. As a matter of fact many biblical places has been located based on information in those manuscripts.
Archeologists or historians have/is studying issues like that all the time.
My opinion is that time should not be of the essence when returning from exile. There are precedents for that because governments have paid war reparations/or other payments going back a couple of generations where the original party was/is deceased.
As a matter of fact I was just talking to someone the other day that had a farm returned in Latvia it had been seized by the Russians in the 1940's. Indians in Canada and the US have land claims going back 100's of years and they are still being settled today.
What exactly is your point? Do you feel that Arabs don't have enough land?
But here's a question:
Do Jews have claims to Syria, Lebanon, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, etc????????
I think that they do.